Our review is designed to help you maximize your score on the Anatomic Pathology Exam. StatPearls questions and articles are linked directly to American Osteopathic Board of Pathology®; American Board of Pathology® and American Board of Medical Specialties content outlines. Each review course is designed to empower you to assess your knowledge and understanding of medical principles and concepts found on the Anatomic Pathology Exam.
We have 1,521 Multiple-choice 1st, 2nd, and 3rd order questions with four detailed teaching points linked to 1,060 PubMed indexed review articles related to the Anatomic Pathology Examination. You can customize practice questions to anatomical and clinical Board Certified Pathologist subject areas. In addition, you will have access to a 250 question pre- and post-test Anatomic Pathology Exam to help you target learning and identify areas that need further study. Analytics and reports allow you to compare your scores to other students.
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The StatPearls anatomic pathology prep questions, anatomic pathology review questions, and anatomic pathology test questions will help you achieve a top score on the Anatomic Pathology Examination. 1,023 authors and 21 editors have contributed to the development of the Anatomic Pathology Exam content, which is continuously refined and updated to improve your learning experience.
Anatomic Pathology Exam Overview
How many hours is the Anatomic Pathology Exam?
The Anatomic Pathology Exam is 4 hours.
How many questions is the Anatomic Pathology Exam?
The Anatomic Pathology Exam is 240 questions.
What topics are covered on the Anatomic Pathology Exam?
Topics include: Approximately 94% of the total examination is devoted to questions related to pathology of specific organ systems or multi-system disease. The remaining 6% of the examination deals with general pathology and laboratory management
Anatomic Pathology Exam MCQs (1,521)
Our question bank for the Anatomic Pathology Exam covers four Cognitive Difficulty Levels:
- Allergy and Immunology - 92 questions
- Cardiovascular - 193 questions
- Connective Tissue - 83 questions
- Ears Nose and Throat - 99 questions
- Endocrine and Metabolic - 147 questions
- Eyes - 66 questions
- Gastrointestinal - 225 questions
- Genetics - 155 questions
- Genitourinary - 93 questions
- Growth and Development - 110 questions
- Gynecologic - 98 questions
- Hematologic - 105 questions
- Infectious - 198 questions
- Integument - 435 questions
- Musculoskeletal - 211 questions
- Nervous - 199 questions
- Nutrition - 10 questions
- Obstetric - 22 questions
- Oncologic - 705 questions
- Psychiatric Mental Health - 8 questions
- Pulmonary - 140 questions
- Renal - 104 questions
- Surgery - 86 questions
- Toxicology - 42 questions
- Trauma - 23 questions
- Manage Care and Comply Regulations - 5 questions
- Health Promotion & Maintenance (Prevent Problems) - 7 questions
- Pharm/Parenteral Therapy (Drugs/Vital Signs) - 17 questions
- Reduction Risk (Post Procedure) - 2 questions
- Physiological Adaptation (Care Ill Patients) - 975 questions
- Process (Analysis, Assess, Eval, Implement, Plan) - 1019 questions
- Teaching/Learning (Promotes Behavior Change) - 1 questions
- Causes - 612 questions
- Classification - 270 questions
- Differential - 1176 questions
- Epidemiology - 110 questions
- Evaluation Diagnostic Tests - 850 questions
- Evaluation Lab - 811 questions
- Evaluation Monitoring - 33 questions
- Evaluation Nuclear Medicine - 4 questions
- Evaluation Procedures - 770 questions
- Evaluation Radiologic - 475 questions
- Health Maint Prevention Public Health - 7 questions
- History Physical - 1568 questions
- Pathophysiology - 1241 questions
- Patient Education - 16 questions
- Prognosis Complications - 904 questions
- Toxicology - 27 questions
- Treatment Medical - 73 questions
- Treatment Radiation - 5 questions
- Treatment Surgical - 123 questions
- Clinical Education - 25 questions
- Therapeutics (Drug treatment) - 9 questions
- Drug Information - 8 questions
- Pharmaceutics (Safely dosing medications) - 5 questions
- Pharmacokinetics (Drug movement in body) - 1 questions
Anatomic Pathology Exam Articles (1,060)
Radiation esophagitis is inflammation of the esophagus due to radiation. Radiation esophagitis is typically an adverse effect that develops in indi ...
Cowden disease, also known as Cowden syndrome or multiple hamartoma syndrome, is a genodermatosis originally described in 1963 by Lloyd and Dennis. ...
Acrokeratosis verruciformis of Hopf (or simply acrokeratosis verruciformis: AKV) is a rare genodermatosis characterized by keratotic lesions o ...
Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a genetic disorder of connective tissues caused by an abnormality in the synthesis or processing of type ...
Boyle’s law is a gas law that describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of gas for a mass and temperature. This law is the m ...
The term "brachycephaly" is derived from the Greek words "brakhu" (short) and "cephalos" (head), meaning "short head." Brachycephaly is an infant s ...
The amniotic fluid index is a standardized way to assess the sufficiency of amniotic fluid quantity in pregnancy. The amniotic fluid index is used ...
Waardenburg, in 1918 first described the pigmented iris hamartomas. Karl Lisch, an Austrian ophthalmologist, in 1937 reported the association of th ...
Mediastinal seminomas are a very rare germ cell tumor that occurs in the mediastinum. Germ cell tumors rarely occur outside of the gonads, with a r ...
Pernio, also referred to as chilblains, is a rare inflammatory condition. Chilblains derives from two Old English words "chill" ( cold ) and "blege ...
Craniopharyngiomas are rare, benign tumors of the central nervous system. Craniopharyngiomas are epithelial tumors that typically arise in the supr ...
"Atypical glandular cells (AGC)" is the term adopted by The Bethesda system of reporting cervicovaginal cytology.
Pemphigus is a group of vesiculobullous autoimmune diseases. The most common type of pemphigus is pemphigus vulgaris, characterized by mucocutaneou ...
A melanoma is a tumor produced by the malignant transformation of melanocytes. Melanocytes are derived from the neural crest; consequently, melanom ...
Tonsil cancer is the most common form of oropharyngeal malignancy, and its incidence is sharply rising due to the increasing prevale ...
Hector Lopez-Cardona MD Associate Professor Faculty University of South Florida, Morsani College of Medicine Clearwater FL
Thomas A Godwin MD Associate Professor Chairman Mclean VA
David T Lynch MD Assistant Professor SAMMC ABP Hematopathology Ft Sam Houston TX
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