Our review is designed to help you maximize your score on the Dermatopathology Exam. StatPearls questions and articles are linked directly to American Board of Pathology®, American Board of Dermatology®, AOA Board of Pathology®, and AOA Board of Dermatology® content outlines. Each review course is designed to empower you to assess your knowledge and understanding of medical principles and concepts found on the Dermatopathology Exam.
We have 886 Multiple-choice 1st, 2nd, and 3rd order questions with four detailed teaching points linked to 430 PubMed indexed review articles related to the Dermatopathology Examination. You can customize practice questions to anatomical and clinical Dermatopathologist subject areas. In addition, you will have access to a 250 question pre- and post-test Dermatopathology Exam to help you target learning and identify areas that need further study. Analytics and reports allow you to compare your scores to other students.
Achieve top scores
The StatPearls dermatopathology prep questions, dermatopathology review questions, and dermatopathology test questions will help you achieve a top score on the Dermatopathology Examination. 381 authors and 11 editors have contributed to the development of the Dermatopathology Exam content, which is continuously refined and updated to improve your learning experience.
Dermatopathology Exam Overview
How many hours is the Dermatopathology Exam?
The Dermatopathology Exam is 7 hours.
How many questions is the Dermatopathology Exam?
The Dermatopathology Exam is 240 questions.
What topics are covered on the Dermatopathology Exam?
Topics include: Inflammatory Reaction Patterns - 17%, The Epidermis - 7%, The Dermis - 7%, Normal Skin - 2%, Artifacts - 2%, Diseases of Cutaneous Appendages - 3%, Cysts, Sinuses and Pits - 2%, Pannicukitis - 2%, Metbolic and Storage Diseases - 3%, Infections and Infestations - 10%, Tumors - 28%, Laboratory - 12%, Laboratory Management - and General - 5%
Dermatopathology Exam MCQs (886)
Our question bank for the Dermatopathology Exam covers four Cognitive Difficulty Levels:
- Allergy and Immunology - 85 questions
- Cardiovascular - 22 questions
- Connective Tissue - 61 questions
- Ears Nose and Throat - 34 questions
- Endocrine and Metabolic - 32 questions
- Eyes - 16 questions
- Gastrointestinal - 21 questions
- Genetics - 91 questions
- Genitourinary - 29 questions
- Growth and Development - 30 questions
- Gynecologic - 15 questions
- Hematologic - 27 questions
- Infectious - 167 questions
- Integument - 973 questions
- Musculoskeletal - 38 questions
- Nervous - 38 questions
- Nutrition - 3 questions
- Obstetric - 6 questions
- Oncologic - 251 questions
- Psychiatric Mental Health - 5 questions
- Pulmonary - 11 questions
- Renal - 9 questions
- Surgery - 23 questions
- Toxicology - 28 questions
- Trauma - 4 questions
- Teeth/Oral - 4 questions
- Manage Care and Comply Regulations - 4 questions
- Promote Safety and Minimize Infection - 1 questions
- Basic Care and Comfort (Assist Daily Living Tasks) - 1 questions
- Pharm/Parenteral Therapy (Drugs/Vital Signs) - 25 questions
- Reduction Risk (Post Procedure) - 2 questions
- Physiological Adaptation (Care Ill Patients) - 342 questions
- Psychosocial (Mental Health Patient/Family) - 3 questions
- Process (Analysis, Assess, Eval, Implement, Plan) - 361 questions
- Communication/Documentation (Oral, Written, EMR) - 1 questions
- Teaching/Learning (Promotes Behavior Change) - 1 questions
- Causes - 391 questions
- Classification - 135 questions
- Differential - 643 questions
- Epidemiology - 46 questions
- Evaluation Diagnostic Tests - 461 questions
- Evaluation Lab - 295 questions
- Evaluation Monitoring - 16 questions
- Evaluation Procedures - 403 questions
- Evaluation Radiologic - 30 questions
- Health Maint Prevention Public Health - 1 questions
- History Physical - 952 questions
- Pathophysiology - 662 questions
- Patient Education - 25 questions
- Prognosis Complications - 375 questions
- Toxicology - 21 questions
- Treatment Medical - 117 questions
- Treatment Prehospital - 1 questions
- Treatment Radiation - 4 questions
- Treatment Rehabilitation - 1 questions
- Treatment Surgical - 46 questions
- Clinical Education - 5 questions
- Therapeutics (Drug treatment) - 13 questions
- Drug Information - 14 questions
- Pharmaceutics (Safely dosing medications) - 7 questions
- Pharmacokinetics (Drug movement in body) - 2 questions
Dermatopathology Exam Articles (430)
The term anetoderma is derived from the Greek words 'anetos', meaning relaxed, and 'derma,' meaning skin. The condition was first described by Jada ...
Calciphylaxis is a rare but devastating disorder most commonly observed in patients with end-stage renal disease, although it does occasi ...
Merkel cell carcinoma (MCC) is a rare, aggressive neuroendocrine tumor of the skin with increasing incidence. It most frequently presents on t ...
Pemphigus herpetiformis is a rare subtype of intraepidermal autoimmune bullous diseases that associate the clinical characteristics of dermati ...
Dupuytren disease is predominantly a myofibroblastic disease that affects the palmar and digital fascia of the hand and results in contracture defo ...
Amyloidosis is a heterogeneous disease that results from the deposition of toxic insoluble beta-sheet fibrillar protein aggregates in dif ...
Mastocytosis is a disorder characterized by mast cell accumulation, commonly in the skin, bone marrow, gastrointestinal (GI) tract, liver, spleen, ...
Solar urticaria is a chronic acquired photosensitivity disorder. It consists of recurrent episodes of urticaria rash developed on areas of the ...
In 1953, Dr. Herman Pinkus first described the fibroepithelial tumor of Pinkus (FEP) as a pre-malignant epithelial tumor. Altho ...
Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressive agent used to treat organ rejection post-transplant. It also has uses in certain other autoimmune diseases.
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a systemic necrotizing vasculitis first described in 1866 by Adolph Kussmaul and Rudolph Maier.
Cutaneous diagnosis is often, but not always, visually based. Dermatologists tend to encounter situations where the possibility of multiple di ...
Lipomas are defined as a common subcutaneous tumor composed of adipose (fat) cells, often encapsulated by a thin layer of fibrous tissue.
Psoriasis is recognized as the most prevalent immune-mediated inflammatory disease, involving skin and joints and associated with abnormalitie ...
Cryosurgery was first described in the 1800s and has since evolved into a mainstay of therapy wit ...
Jodi J Speiser MD Assistant Professor Director Loyola University Medical Center Maywood IL
Kevin Krauland MD Assistant Professor Associate Program Director Brooke Army Medical Center FCAP, FASDP Seguin TX
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