Our review is designed to help you maximize your score on the Facial Plastic Surgery Exam. StatPearls questions and articles are linked directly to American Board of Facial Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery, Inc.® ABFPRS®; American Board of Facial Cosmetic Surgery® content outlines. Each review course is designed to empower you to assess your knowledge and understanding of medical principles and concepts found on the Facial Plastic Surgery Exam.
We have 554 Multiple-choice 1st, 2nd, and 3rd order questions with four detailed teaching points linked to 249 PubMed indexed review articles related to the ABFPRS® Examination. You can customize practice questions to anatomical and clinical Board Certified Facial Plastic Surgeon subject areas. In addition, you will have access to a 250 question pre- and post-test Facial Plastic Surgery Exam to help you target learning and identify areas that need further study. Analytics and reports allow you to compare your scores to other students.
Achieve top scores
The StatPearls facial plastic surgery prep questions, facial plastic surgery review questions, and facial plastic surgery test questions will help you achieve a top score on the ABFPRS® Examination. 256 authors and 10 editors have contributed to the development of the Facial Plastic Surgery Exam content, which is continuously refined and updated to improve your learning experience.
Facial Plastic Surgery Exam Overview
How many hours is the Facial Plastic Surgery Exam?
The Facial Plastic Surgery Exam is 2 hours.
How many questions is the Facial Plastic Surgery Exam?
The Facial Plastic Surgery Exam is 100 questions.
What topics are covered on the Facial Plastic Surgery Exam?
Topics include: ABFPRS®: Basic science, diagnosis, and medical and surgical management; ABFCS®: Written Test - Liposuction: 8-12%, Facial: 55-59%, Dermatology: 8-10%, Patient Safety: 10-14%, and Surgical Principles: 10-14%,
Facial Plastic Surgery Exam MCQs (554)
Our question bank for the Facial Plastic Surgery Exam covers four Cognitive Difficulty Levels:
- Allergy and Immunology - 2 questions
- Cardiovascular - 16 questions
- Connective Tissue - 12 questions
- Ears Nose and Throat - 209 questions
- Endocrine and Metabolic - 5 questions
- Eyes - 112 questions
- Gastrointestinal - 5 questions
- Genetics - 9 questions
- Growth and Development - 18 questions
- Infectious - 11 questions
- Integument - 323 questions
- Musculoskeletal - 72 questions
- Nervous - 56 questions
- Nutrition - 1 questions
- Obstetric - 3 questions
- Oncologic - 74 questions
- Psychiatric Mental Health - 3 questions
- Pulmonary - 2 questions
- Renal - 1 questions
- Surgery - 341 questions
- Toxicology - 8 questions
- Trauma - 99 questions
- Manage Care and Comply Regulations - 7 questions
- Health Promotion & Maintenance (Prevent Problems) - 1 questions
- Pharm/Parenteral Therapy (Drugs/Vital Signs) - 25 questions
- Reduction Risk (Post Procedure) - 18 questions
- Physiological Adaptation (Care Ill Patients) - 187 questions
- Psychosocial (Mental Health Patient/Family) - 2 questions
- Process (Analysis, Assess, Eval, Implement, Plan) - 220 questions
- Caring (Hope and Support) - 1 questions
- Causes - 198 questions
- Classification - 94 questions
- Differential - 178 questions
- Epidemiology - 7 questions
- Evaluation Diagnostic Tests - 62 questions
- Evaluation Lab - 22 questions
- Evaluation Monitoring - 15 questions
- Evaluation Nuclear Medicine - 1 questions
- Evaluation Procedures - 68 questions
- Evaluation Radiologic - 47 questions
- Health Maint Prevention Public Health - 4 questions
- History Physical - 568 questions
- Pathophysiology - 234 questions
- Patient Education - 18 questions
- Prognosis Complications - 358 questions
- Toxicology - 3 questions
- Treatment Medical - 106 questions
- Treatment Occupation/Physical Therapy - 4 questions
- Treatment Radiation - 12 questions
- Treatment Surgical - 438 questions
- Healthcare Ethics - 2 questions
- Clinical Education - 10 questions
- Therapeutics (Drug treatment) - 16 questions
- Drug Information - 16 questions
- Pharmaceutics (Safely dosing medications) - 9 questions
- Pharmacokinetics (Drug movement in body) - 1 questions
Facial Plastic Surgery Exam Articles (249)
Thermal burns are a significant cause of worldwide morbidity and mortality. They can lead to debilitating, lifelong injuries and have serious psych ...
Deep neck infections are a serious but treatable group of infections affecting the deep cervical space and characterized by rapid progression and l ...
Oral cutaneous fistulas (OCF) are infrequent conditions in which there is a pathologic communication between the oral cavity and the skin. In medic ...
Infantile hemangioma is the most prevalent benign tumor of infancy. The estimated incidence is between 4 and 5 %. Large facial segmental hemangioma ...
Bell palsy (BP) is the most common peripheral paralysis of the seventh cranial nerve with an onset that is rapid and unilateral. The diagnosis is o ...
Keratoacanthoma (KA) is a low-grade, rapidly growing, 1 to 2 cm dome-shaped skin tumor with a centralized keratinous plug. Over the past hundred ye ...
Local, random pattern flaps are workhorse reconstructive options for cutaneous defects. Advancement flaps are conceptually the simplest local flaps ...
Salivary gland neoplasms may be benign or malignant, and malignant tumors can be primary or metastatic. Due to the epithelial and the non-epit ...
Pott puffy tumor (PPT) is a forehead swelling and edema resulting from osteomyelitis of the frontal skull bone with associated subperiosteal absces ...
An auricular hematoma is a collection of blood underneath the perichondrium of the ear and typically occurs secondary to trauma. Auricular defor ...
With the passage of time, skin ages and accumulates photodamage. This results in loss of elasticity, changes in pigmentation, as well as the develo ...
A dilated pore of Winer (DP), first described by Louis H. Winer in 1954, is a commonly occurring benign adnexal tumor of follicular differentiation ...
Adenoid hypertrophy is an obstructive condition related to an increased size of the adenoids. The condition can occur with or without an acute ...
Furnas described otoplasty in 1959 with the technique of using permanent sutures on the conchomastoid to correct the deformity of prominauris.
Fusiform incision involves cutting out tissue in a manner that results in both ends of the specimen being tapered or made spindle-shaped. Removal o ...
Ziad Katrib MD Assistant Professor University of Louisville Louisville KY
Brian W Downs MD Assistant Professor Wake Forest School of Medicine FACS Lewisville NC
Gregory Dibelius MD Private Practice, Assistant Professor Lenox Hill Hospital, Jamaica Hospital, Florida Atlantic University New York NY
Become a better professional with answer explanations and articles that enable you to master the material.
Test Exams & Unlimited Quizzes
Assess where your strong and generate practice questions where you are weak.
Questions and teaching points are continuously updated.
Actionable information on where to improve.
No credit card required